Kant explains to us just why certain aspects of his theory are unattainable, and can only be identified by the human mind. My SLAP addresses this issue specifically-
1.Why
does Kant make claims devoid of the rational human mind while at the same time
embedding his ideas within the same realm of practical reason?
I'm not sure I understand the question. There are some things, Kant insists, that we can't stop wondering about, but that are beyond the capacity of reason to answer. This is the core of his Critique of Pure Reason, and he deploys it here to point out that we needn't settle the metaphysical question of human freedom in order to live moral lives -- in fact, we must simply POSIT it, rather than reason our way to it. Does this help?
I'm not sure I understand the question. There are some things, Kant insists, that we can't stop wondering about, but that are beyond the capacity of reason to answer. This is the core of his Critique of Pure Reason, and he deploys it here to point out that we needn't settle the metaphysical question of human freedom in order to live moral lives -- in fact, we must simply POSIT it, rather than reason our way to it. Does this help?
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